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British versus Jewish Genetics -2

DNA Changes Need to be Acknowledged!

Continued from British versus Jewish Genetics.

Jaime Robert

Thank you again for your answers Yair!

-How come Ashkenazi Jews have a distinct genetic (including Y-chromosomal) profile from their non-Jewish neighbors if genetics mostly depend on the environment? Keep in mind that Jews have been living in Europe for millennia.

-How is it far-fetched to assume that the R1b people replaced the others either through deliberate extermination or warfare? Look at what happened in the Americas and Australia for HaShem's sake!

-Maybe Greeks, Italians and Armenians have ancient Jewish (or Semitic) admixture? Intermarriages happen AND happened, you know. Do you consider Greeks, Italians, and Armenians to be Japhetites or Semites?

-Don't you think the ancient Celto-Germanic Western European peoples should have retained at least SOME of the aforementioned Hebrew customs? As for linguistics, I'd say that anyone can find similarities between unrelated languages. It doesn't necessarily prove anything in my opinion.

Cheers,

God Bless!

James.

^^^^^^^^^^^^^

Brit-Am Reply:

You asked:

# -How come Ashkenazi Jews have a distinct genetic (including Y-chromosomal) profile from their non-Jewish neighbors if genetics mostly depend on the environment? Keep in mind that Jews have been living in Europe for millennia. #

Brit-Am Replies:

You tell me. What does it indicate? Parallel Evolution?
Remember there is NO one Ashkenazi Y-DNA type.  There are several. There is (according to you) Ashkenazi R1b DNA, Ashkenazi R1a DNA, Ashkenazi J1 DNA, Ashkenazi J2 DNA, etc. They are distributed in  percentages such as 20%, 15%, 20%, 20%, etc. This is not a problem for us since if the Jews were different before-hand then the changes that affected everybody else may have affected the Jews in a slightly different way.
Their  percentages are the same as for other peoples who live in the same general area such as the Samaritans, Kurds, Turks, Armenians, Palestinians, even (according to you)  Greeks, and Southern Italians, etc. To get the same  percentages and to maintain them they would have to have been together for a very long time and to have "evolved" together. Not to lose this relative percentage until now indicates that it could not have been achieved that long ago. So how and when did it take place?

Remember this was a point that you yourself made. Note that the Cohen Gene occurs in a small portion of both J and J2. This would mean (according to Conventional understanding) either that the Cohen Gene was present before J split into J1 and J2 (something which they deny the possibility of happening)  OR it independently developed after the two had divided from each other. This in fact is what must have happened. This means Jgene specific genetic transposon or something similar. 

We suggested in our proposed counter-scenario that environmental conditions might occasionally trigger- off mass DNA changes similar to all the local grasshoppers suddenly becoming locusts. This may be happening all the time or it might take place once in a blue moon. Different types react to the same stimuli in differing ways. It happens. It explains what else happens. This to our minds accords with the known evidence BUT even if it is not that way does not make the present conventional view "KOSHER." Some other explanation may come up.
As for R1B exterminating the opposition - we do not know.
We also do not rely on conventional chronology so it  is difficult to compare.
Nevertheless conventional chronology places the Dolmens before the mass appearance of R1b (whenever that really was) and Dolmen culture continued long after.

As for parallels between the Celts and Hebrew see relevant articles on our web-sites. 

 

 

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