Answers to Questions by Yair Davidiy
How does Judaism explain why God put the urge in some people for homosexual behavior which he also forbids?
The Torah clearly forbids homosexual behavior, why were some people given that urge & told not to act on it?
I am not so sure that Judaism would agree with your premise.
How certain is it that some people really have innate exclusively homosexual drives as opposed to heterosexual ones?
Let me explain.
Touching or otherwise exciting the sexual organs in a certain way or thinking along certain lines results in arousal.
Emotional needs intertwine with physical ones.
A man may be aroused by, and feel a need for, someone who is forbidden to him.
He nevertheless should not touch him or her.
What is the difference between this and the prohibition against homosexuality?
You may reply that in the case of heterosexual desire for a forbidden female satisfaction is at least available (in theory) from another female with whom sex would be permitted.
In practice matters are not that simple.
Even if the permitted female is not available the prohibition of the forbidden still holds.
The fact is that so-called homosexual needs can be satisfied or allayed by heterosexual practices.
And vice versa.
The Torah tells us what is forbidden and what is not.
This is for our good.